[Biblemat] "Rebaptism" (question/answer)

[Don Martin]

Don Martin sharing question/answer number 2, 500 since July 12, 2006:

Hello Martha,

Thank you so much for your question and for making use of Bible
Questions. Please do so again. http://www.biblequestions.org  Please
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You asked:

Regarding Acts 19:3, Paul rebaptized Apollos and the 12 disciples,
laid hands upon them and they received the Holy Ghost so they could
speak with tongues and prophesied.  My question is:  Did everyone who
John the Baptist baptized have to be rebaptized or just Apollos and the
twelve?

Reply:

Some believe that Apollos (Acts 18) and the disciples mentioned in
Acts 19 were all baptized with John's baptism after Acts 2, when the
baptism of the Great Commission became effective (cp. Mark 16: 15,16).
In this case only, it is explained, these people had to be later "baptized
in Jesus' name." There are many similarities between the baptism of John
and that of the Great Commission (both for the remission of sins,
Mark 1: 4, Acts 2: 38). However, since John's baptism was a type of
the baptism to come, the baptism of the Great Commission, there are
also important differences.  Moreover, in the circumstance of the type
and anti-type, the type never stands on its own, thus, eliminating the
need for the anti-type.  Therefore, I am of the persuasion, by means
of inference, that all who were baptized in John's preparatory and typical
baptism were also later (Acts 2) to be baptized "in Jesus' name," a
baptism that placed them in Christ, where salvation is located (Gal. 3: 26,
27, 2 Tim. 2: 10, John's baptism did not have this design).  One of the
first debates in which I participated as a young man (I was nineteen) was
pertaining to the situation involved in your good question (I assisted
both disputants).  The bottom line, as I concluded then and tired to get
both disputants to realize, is this is really a mute issue today, as the
circumstances cannot be duplicated.  The thing that did greatly disturb
me about the debate is the disputant who contended that they did not
have to later be baptized, those baptized in John's baptism before
Acts 2, tried to turn this into justification for people experiencing
denominational baptism (not scriptural) not subsequently being baptized
according to Acts 2: 38, etc.  Such is a  reach and a manifestly faulty
argument and is of serious, negative consequences (cp. I Pet. 3: 21).

There are many articles pertaining to baptism in www.bibletruths.net
When on the home page, enter through the door and click on
"Archives and Index" in the directory.  When on the Archives page,
click on the letter "B."

Thanks again for your good question and for your interest in spiritual
matters. I recommend that you print out this email for future reference
(web addresses, etc.). You may print out any material you desire in
both Bible Questions and Bible Truths (see the copyright provision at
the bottom of the home page in Bible Truths).

Cordially,
Don Martin